SNLE Mock Exam 4

SNLE Mock Exam 4 – MCQs to Test Your Knowledge

Challenge yourself with 100 SNLE-style MCQs designed to mirror the Saudi Medical Licensing Exam. Attempt now and instantly check your readiness with detailed scoring and feedback.

Q1- The nursing process begins with which of the following steps? A) Planning B) Assessment C) Implementation D) Evaluation

Q2- Which of these is the most accurate method to assess body temperature in a newborn? A) Tympanic B) Axillary C) Oral D) Temporal artery

Q3-A nurse is applying a nasal cannula at 2 L/min. What’s the approximate oxygen concentration delivered? A) 24% B) 28% C) 35% D) 40%

Q4-Which method is used to sterilize heat-sensitive equipment in a hospital? A) Autoclave B) Dry heat C) Ethylene oxide gas D) Boiling water

Q5- When administering an intramuscular injection to an adult, the preferred site is ? A) Deltoid B) Vastus lateralis C) Ventrogluteal D) Dorsogluteal

Q6-A patient’s bed is raised to 30°, increasing the head of bed is known as ? A) Trendelenburg position B) Reverse Trendelenburg C) Fowler’s position D) Semi-Fowler’s position

Q7-The primary nursing action for a patient in shock is to ? A) Administer antibiotics B) Maintain airway and circulation C) Provide emotional support D) Monitor urine output

Q8-A nurse is measuring intake and output. What is the most important reason? A) Estimate fluid intake B) Assess hydration and kidney function C) Check for IV infiltration D) Ensure patient compliance

Q9-To prevent nosocomial infections, the nurse must follow ? A) Standard precautions B) Contact precautions only C) Droplet precautions only D) Airborne precautions only

Q10-In delegation, the nurse must use which of the following frameworks? A) ABCD principles B) Five Rights of Delegation C) Nursing Scope Ladder D) Maslow’s hierarchy

Q11-A patient chooses “refuse medication.” The nurse’s most appropriate response is ? A) “You must take it.” B) “I’ll get the doctor.” C) “Let’s discuss your concerns.” D) “I’ll administer it later.”

Q12-To relieve pain post-surgery, the nurse correctly notes a PCA (patient-controlled analgesia) dose—this reflects ? A) Autonomy B) Beneficence C) Justice D) Nonmaleficence

Q13-The best site for assessing pulse pressure is ? A) Carotid B) Radial C) Brachial D) Apical

Q14-When suctioning a patient’s tracheostomy, the nurse should ? A) Apply suction while inserting B) Limit each pass to 5 seconds C) Encourage deep breaths after suctioning D) Perform continuously for 30 seconds

Q15-The nurse instructs a diabetic patient to perform foot care. The correct advice is to ? A) Bath daily in hot water B) Apply lotion between toes C) Inspect feet every day D) Soak for 10 minutes twice weekly

Q16-A medication error is discovered. The nurse’s first step is to ? A) Notify the manager B) Document in the incident report C) Inform the physician and monitor the patient D) Hide the error if no harm occurred

Q17-When using a fire extinguisher, “PASS” stands for ? A) Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep B) Push, Alert, Save, Stop C) Pull, Align, Spray, Sweep D) Pull, Aim, Swift, Stop

Q18-For proper body mechanics, when lifting objects, the nurse should ? A) Keep feet together and bend at the waist B) Bend at hips and knees, keep back straight C) Twist body while lifting D) Hold object far from the body

Q19-A patient on contact precautions needs rooming-in. The nurse must ensure: ? A) The patient stays in bed at all times B) The room is cleaned weekly C) Staff wears gloves and gown when entering D) Airborne precautions are added

Q20-The correct ratio for adult CPR compression to ventilation is: A) 15:2 B) 30:2 C) 30:1 D) 15:3

Q21-For infection control, the nurse should use hand sanitizer when hands are not visibly soiled, except ? A) After removing gloves B) Before and after patient contact C) After caring for Clostridioides difficile patient D) After touching objects near the patient

Q22-A patient complains of dyspnea. The nurse checks oxygen saturation first: it reads 88%. The immediate action is to ? A) Turn the patient to the left side B) Provide oxygen per protocol C) Call the physician only D) Reassess in 30 minutes

Q23-The term “euthenic” refers to ? A) Improving environmental health B) Curing genetic diseases C) Enhancing living conditions D) Promoting immunization

Q24- A patient's IV infusion runs behind schedule. What should the nurse do? A) Increase the rate safely, per policy B) Complete infusion later without notifying C) Cancel the infusion D) Skip the remaining dose

Q25-Before initiating enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube, the nurse must check ? A) Gastric content pH B) Residual color C) Feeding temperature only D) Patient’s last bowel movement

Q26-A patient with congestive heart failure experiences dyspnea when supine. The correct position is ? A) Supine B) Trendelenburg C) Semi-Fowler’s D) Prone

Q27-In a patient on heparin therapy, the lab value to monitor most closely is ? A) PT B) INR C) aPTT D) Platelet count

Q28-The most common symptom of hypokalemia is ? A) Hypertension B) Muscle weakness C) Bradycardia D) Edema

Q29-For a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis, which lab value is most critical? A) Serum potassium B) Serum sodium C) Hemoglobin A1c D) Serum lactate

Q30-A post-op patient’s wound is red and warm with purulent drainage. The nurse properly notes this as a sign of ? A) Dehiscence B) Infection C) Seroma D) Evisceration

Q31-To reduce intracranial pressure, the nurse elevates the head of the bed to ? A) 15° B) 30° C) 45° D) 60°

Q32-A patient with COPD uses which of the following breathing techniques? A) Diaphragmatic breathing B) Chest breathing only C) Huff coughing D) Pursed-lip breathing

Q33-A patient has early signs of acute kidney injury. A key finding is ? A) High urine output B) Low specific gravity C) Rising BUN and creatinine D) Elevated platelets

Q34-The priority nursing action for a choking adult who can’t breathe or speak is ? A) Start abdominal thrusts (Heimlich) B) Encourage coughing C) Call code or activate emergency response D) Provide back blows only

Q35- When caring for a stroke patient with unilateral neglect, the nurse should ? A) Place belongings on the unaffected side B) Restrict movement C) Restrain the patient D) Provide adaptive devices only

Q36-A patient on warfarin therapy has an INR of 5.0. The nurse should ? A) Increase warfarin dose B) Hold the dose and notify physician C) Give vitamin K immediately without consulting D) Continue same regimen

Q37-A patient complains of epigastric pain relieved by antacid—likely diagnosis is ? A) Duodenal ulcer B) Gastric ulcer C) Pancreatitis D) Cholecystitis

Q38-A patient with pneumonia has crackles and a productive cough. Nurse’s best actions is ? A) Encourage coughing and deep breathing B) Limit fluids C) Restrict activity D) Provide ice chips only

Q39-A patient with pancreatitis should be placed in what position to relieve pain? A) Supine B) Side-lying with knees drawn up C) Trendelenburg D) Prone

Q40-A patient treated for anaphylactic shock develops wheezing. The nurse suspects ? A) Pulmonary embolism B) Reactive airway obstruction C) Angioedema D) Status asthmaticus

Q41-During a blood transfusion, the nurse should monitor for which early reaction? A) Delayed hemolytic reaction B) Allergic reaction C) Febrile non-hemolytic reaction D) Anaphylactic reaction

Q42-A patient on a sliding scale for insulin—what’s the nurse’s priority? A) Check blood glucose before giving insulin B) Administer insulin on schedule only C) Call physician if glucose is normal D) Skip insulin if patient is NPO

Q43-A patient with hypertension is started on ACE inhibitors. The nurse warns about ? A) Cough B) Constipation C) Night sweats D) Photosensitivity

Q44-A patient has peripheral vascular disease. The nurse avoids ? A) Elevating the legs B) Applying heat C) Encouraging ambulation D) Positioning dependent

Q45-The nurse observes red rash and bronchospasm right after antibiotic administration—this indicates: A) Serum sickness B) Anaphylaxis C) Mild allergic reaction D) Delayed hypersensitivity

Q46-For a patient with anemia, the best nursing intervention is to ? A) Encourage iron-rich foods B) Limit fluids C) Reduce rest periods D) Provide calcium supplements

Q47-A patient with hyperthyroidism is placed on a cooling blanket. The nurse monitors for ? A) Hypothermia B) Skin breakdown C) Shivering D) Edema

Q48-A patient with myocardial infarction receives nitroglycerin. The nurse checks ? A) Blood pressure and headache occurrence B) Pulse only C) Respiratory rate D) BUN and creatinine

Q49-A patient with pulmonary edema should have which position? A) Flat B) High-Fowler’s C) Prone D) Trendelenburg

Q50-A patient in DKA, the nurse notes rapid weak pulse, fruity breath, and dehydration—these are signs of ? A) Hypoglycemia B) Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state C) Diabetic ketoacidosis D) Hypovolemia

Q51-A newborn’s APGAR score is 5 at 1 minute. The nurse’s immediate action is? A) Provide tactile stimulation B) Initiate skin-to-skin contact C) Administer oxygen D) Delay cord clamping

Q52-During labor, a late deceleration is observed. The immediate nursing action is ? A) Increase oxytocin infusion B) Increase oxytocin infusion C) Reposition to left lateral D) Delay feeding

Q53-When teaching about postpartum bleeding, the nurse tells the mother that lochia rubra lasts ? A) 1–3 days B) 4–10 days C) 10–14 days D) Up to 6 weeks

Q54-A newborn has a continuous high-pitched cry, bulging fontanelle, and jaundice—risk of ? A) Neonatal sepsis B) Congenital hypothyroidism C) Physiologic jaundice D) Hydrocephalus

Q55-A pregnant patient at 36 weeks is Rh-negative, no antibodies detected. The nurse expects ? A) No treatment needed B) Rho(D) immunoglobulin administration C) Weekly antibody titer D) Immediate blood transfusion

Q56-The nurse knows that a “bloody show” during labor indicates ? A) Rupture of membranes B) Cervical dilation C) Placental separation D) Onset of involution

Q57-A 2-year-old is choking. The nurse’s best response is ? A) Back blows and abdominal thrusts B) Encourage to cough C) Head tilt, chin lift only D) Call code immediately

Q58-A toddler with dehydration from diarrhea shows sunken eyes, dry mucosa, and decreased urine output. The nurse prioritizes ? A) Oral rehydration B) IV fluids C) Anti-diarrheal medication D) Feeding schedule

Q59-When giving a vaccine to a child, the most appropriate site is ? A) Deltoid B) Ventrogluteal C) Vastus lateralis D) Gluteus maximus

Q60-An adolescent girl presents with primary amenorrhea. Nurses investigate ? A) Family history B) Height and weight C) Secondary sexual characteristics D) All of the above

Q61-When a newborn is experiencing hypoglycemia, the nurse first ? A) Order IV glucose B) Encourage breastfeeding C) Draw blood sugar D) Warm the baby

Q62-A prenatal patient complains of severe headache and visual disturbances. Nurse suspects ? A) Ectopic pregnancy B) Hyperemesis gravidarum C) Pre-eclampsia D) Anemia

Q63-The nurse notes Trichomonas infection in a pregnant client. The appropriate intervention is ? A) Metronidazole therapy after the first trimester B) Immediate therapy regardless C) No treatment D) Penicillin therapy

Q64-A child with suspected meningitis should be placed ? A) On droplet precautions B) On contact precautions C) No precautions needed D) On airborne precautions

Q65-A mother’s milk “comes in” around day? A) 1–2 postpartum B) 2–3 postpartum C) 5–7 postpartum D) 10–14 postpartum

Q66-A newborn’s first stool is known as ? A) Meconium B) Transitional stool C) Breastfed stool D) Formula stool

Q67-A pregnant client with gestational diabetes is taught about diet. The nurse advises ? A) High-carb snacks at night B) Balanced meals with protein and fiber C) Avoid fruits D) Skip breakfast

Q68-The appropriate intervention for preterm labor at 32 weeks may include? A) Administer tocolytics B) Encourage ambulation C) Start oxytocin D) Provide a warm bath

Q69-When teaching about infant CPR, the nurse explains compression depth is about ? A) 1 inch B) 1.5 inches C) 2 inches D) 2.5 inches

Q70-A toddler’s weight doubles by age? A) 6 months B) 1 year C) 2 years D) 5 years

Q71- A post-op child has difficulty urinating. Nurse’s first action is to ? A) Encourage privacy B) Foley catheterize immediately C) Limit fluid intake D) Document and wait

Q72-A mother with mastitis should be encouraged to ? A) Stop breastfeeding B) Complete feedings on the affected side first C) Empty both breasts regularly D) Apply ice only

Q73-A newborn's normal respiratory rate is ? A) 30–40 breaths/min B) 40–60 breaths/min C) 60–80 breaths/min D) 80–100 breaths/min

Q74-A child’s sudden weight loss and polydipsia may indicate ? A) Diabetes mellitus B) Iron deficiency anemia C) Acute infection D) Hyperthyroidism

Q75-A newborn’s Moro reflex disappears by ? A) 1 month B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 12 months

Q76-A transformational leader is most likely to ? A) Micromanage tasks B) Inspire staff with a shared vision C) Avoid conflict D) Focus only on rules

Q77-To evaluate if a quality improvement initiative is effective, the best approach is ? A) Anecdotal feedback B) Staff satisfaction only C) Policy review D) Outcome indicators

Q78-The best conflict resolution strategy for a nurse manager is ? A) Avoiding the conflict B) Forcing a solution C) Collaborating to solve the issue D) Accommodating personal preference

Q79-A staff nurse takes credit for a team member’s work. The common leadership mistake lacking is ? A) Reward systems B) Trust C) Delegation D) Conflict resolution

Q80-In performance appraisal, reliability refers to ? A) Consistency of evaluation results B) Accuracy of the assessment C) Relevance to job tasks D) Timeliness of the review

Q81-A nurse manager using democratic leadership will ? A) Make decisions unilaterally B) Set strict regulations only C) Delegate every task D) Facilitate staff involvement in decisions

Q82-A change in policy meeting met resistance. The best intervention is to ? A) Enforce it directly B) Offer detailed education and rationale C) Wait for staff to adapt D) Ignore feedback

Q83-To motivate staff, the manager should use ? A) Authoritarian tone B) Clear goals and recognition C) Micromanagement D) Punitive feedback

Q84-A nurse demonstrates accountability by ? A) Blaming others for mistakes B) Ignoring adverse events C) Accepting and correcting errors D) Delegating personal tasks

Q85-During staff shortages, the priority of a nurse manager is to ? A) Cancel all procedures B) Reassign staff fairly and adjust priorities C) Close the unit D) Overload present staff

Q86-A quality improvement cycle often starts with ? A) Planning interventions B) Implementing changes C) Identifying a problem D) Evaluating results

Q87-A night-shift nurse calls off and there's no backup. Manager’s immediate action is ? A) Request staff shift change or call float pool B) Leave position unfilled C) Close unit for the night D) Delay patient care

Q88-A nurse advocate prioritizes which ethical principle? A) Justice B) Autonomy C) Nonmaleficence D) Beneficence

Q89-The staff member feels intimidated by workload. The manager should ? A) Ignore complaints B) Reprimand the staff member C) Reassign tasks or redistribute workload D) Increase workload

Q90-In budget planning, the manager must ensure ? A) Funds are diverted for upgrades B) Budget matches unit needs and patient safety C) Save costs by cutting staff D) Ignore resource shortages

Q91-An example of evidence-based practice is ? A) Use care based on tradition B) Follow only hospital policies C) Base care on current research findings D) Rely on peer preference

Q92-A nurse is mentoring a new graduate. The mentor’s role includes ? A) Correcting mistakes harshly B) Competing for recognition C) Assigning blame D) Guiding, supporting, and encouraging growth

Q93- During an emergency, a nurse prioritizes using ? A) ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) B) SST (Safety, Speed, Triage) C) PCA (Patient-Controlled Analgesia) D) RACE (Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish)

Q94-To manage stress, a competent nurse leader must ? A) Ignore staff complaints B) Provide support and encourage coping strategies C) Increase workload to distract D) Focus only on tasks, not people

Q95-A skill essential in delegation is ? A) Clear communication B) Avoiding follow-up C) Ambiguous instructions D) Ignoring scope of practice

Q96-In establishing policies, the best source is ? A) Previous year’s policies only B) Literature, standards, and stakeholder input C) Manager’s personal preference D) Informal staff input only

Q97-During downtime, a leader should ? A) Ignore team development B) Postpone planning C) Skip meetings D) Facilitate staff training and process review

Q98-Communication breakdown is often due to ? A) Clear expectations B) Assumptions and lack of feedback C) Open dialogue only D) Over-communication

Q99-The best way to maintain patient confidentiality is ? A) Use secure channels for information B) Discuss cases in hallway C) Share passwords to colleagues D) Leave records unattended

Q100-For professional growth, the nurse should be? A) Avoid feedback B) Seek continuing education and reflect on practice C) Rely solely on experience D) Resist change

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SNLE Mock Exam 4 – MCQs to Test Your Knowledge

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